My husband and I have separate finances. We hold properties in individual names only. My husband currently has a pre-approval for about $690k in loan in his name only. This allows for a purchase of IP up to $650k plus stamp duty & incidentals. He has access to 90% loans. This is an 100% lend (10% equity draw from PPOR which is in his name only as deposit for proposed IP, plus 90% lend against proposed IP). We have found a house on the market which we are interested in. I believe it will go for $750k at auction next month. I can give him $100k from my line of credit to make up the shortfall. My question is what's the most effective way we can structure the purchase: Should we put both of our names on the certificate of title? I would be putting in $100k which is probably around what he will be contributing (10% of $650k being $65k from PPOR plus stamp duty & incidentals). Should we do tenants in common 50/50? but mortgage is in his name only ... Does this allow me to deduct interest on my $100k line of credit and he can deduct 100% expenses against 100% of the rent income received? If my name doesn't go on the title, can I still deduct the interest from $100k I give to him? I suspect not? as it's on face value a gift? unless we draft up some loan doc between us to say I lent it to him? Or is all this too hard and we should try to buy something for sub $650k so all our finances remain separate? Thank you all in advance!!!!