Hi everyone, I've been reading Tax Rulings etc but couldn't find an answer to my specific question. Hoping someone might know the answer. So I stuffed up a few years ago. I knew enough to keep my deductible and non deductible debt separate, but I've paid deposits and expenses for three different IPs from one single loan, which is secured against my PPOR. I now know that it could create problems if I sell one of the IPs, and it's already a pain when doing my tax return. You should see my spreadsheet! No immediate plans to sell, but I'm refinancing a loan now that's just off it's fixed rate and thought it could be a good time to start tidying it up. I know that it's allowable to set up three new loans for the exact amounts I've drawn for each property and use them to payout the current mixed loan. But I didn't really want to do three new loans with associated costs just yet. My question is: if I arrange a single new loan for the exact amount relating to one of the properties, can I use that to partially refinance it and at least have that one property segregated? I would then do the next property once I had more equity available in the IP it relates to and set up the new loan against the IP to get it off my PPOR Would it be worth seeking a private ruling do you think? Or would it be an outright "No"?