Can the brains trust shed any light on this for me? We have a 25% share in a commercial IP owned with 2 other parties (25/25/50 split). Property has been owned since pre GST days, so none paid on purchase. Both 25% owners are GST registered - 50% owner is not. Considering implications of sale....currently has a long-standing tenant in place but no tenancy agreement (I know....don't get me started!) and may become vacant. If sold when vacant: 1) Does GST have to be applied to the whole sale, given 50% owner is not registered? 2) Are 25% GST registered owners liable to pay GST, given that there was none claimable on purchase? There will be CGT implications, so the extra 10% is a serious consideration. I'm thinking it may well be sensible to find an alternative tenant before sale, so it becomes a 'going concern'. What do others think?