I have done a refinance and new purchase for a new property at about the same time. However am wanting to know if my balance owing to the solicitor and remaining 20% will be tax deductible. This is the situation. IP1 had a current loan set up with Macquarie as Offset to Loan A Loan A (IP1) - $480K Loan B - $155K (as available equity. $60K was used as a deposit for a previous purchase IP2) IP1 was refinanced to access equity and split with CBA as Offset to Loan A Loan A (IP1) - $480K Loan B (IP2) - $60K Loan C (available equity) - $200K (the refinance has not been settled yet, however it will very soon) IP3 was purchased and the initial 10% deposit was paid from Loan B (Maquarie). Stamp duty has been paid to the Solicitor trust account from Loan B (Macquarie) I have transferred all my offset money from Macquarie to the offset account of CBA. The loans for CBA are not active yet. There is still a remaining 10% deposit and solicitor fees to be paid just prior to the settlement of IP3. I understand the best way to pay for this is to transfer the amount from Loan B of Macquarie, but I will not be able to access this account IP1 loan is also about to settle. What is the best way to pay the remaining 10% deposit? 1. Get a cheque from CBA from my offset account (which is currently not offsetting anything) and once the IP1 refinance loan settles, reimburse myself from the Loan C CBA account? 2. Transfer the remaining 10% deposit to an external savings account with 0 balance. On the day of settlement of IP3 get a cheque for the deposit and then reimburse myself from the Loan C CBA account? 3. If the refinance for IP1 with CBA settles before the settlement of IP3, it would be much easier to transfer that amount from CBA loan C to the solicitors trust account correct? I guess I could borrow the remaining balance from parents as a loan. Then a few days later pay them back from Loan C once CBA as settled? Are there any other ways to keep my remaining 10% deposit tax deductible that I have missed out on? I have been advised to go with Method 1, but am concerned I will be mixing private and investment funds. Im also aware that there is no loan present so I wouldn't be offsetting anything anyway and it would just be fine to reimburse myself?