[RANT] Tenants breaking lease because of sale (completed)

But wasn't the change intended to make it that the tenant *couldn't* terminate if the landlord formed an intention to sell after the lease was signed? Or were those intentions only in REINSW's mind?

If that was the intention, wouldn't you agree that this is not what the legislation appears to actually say?

 

Uh maybe - I didn't hear about this part. I think this is probably what agencies and landlords were lobbying for. I know obviously that the Tenant's Union and the like were lobbying for the more generous interpretation to the tenants.

That was quite a weird blog post from REINSW - it seemed to be inferring that the legislation had changed in the landlord's favour but also read like the writer had no idea what was actually going on.

Yeah definitely. From reading the legislation now - looks like the Tenant's Union won.