Hi guys, Sorry i am just very confused about margin schemes. We have a property that we bought from an old couple few years ago and they not registered for GST. The property is under our family trust with a corporate trustee and we are GST registered. We are looking at developing the land and building 3 units and selling them. I just want to confirm that we will be able to use the margin scheme. I saw the following paragraph from an accountant's website. Eligibility The margin scheme is only available for real property transactions which meet the eligibility criteria. In order to apply the margin scheme: the supply needs to be a taxable supply; the supply must not be an ineligible supply; and the vendor and purchaser have agreed in writing on or before making the supply that margin scheme applies. My question is when it says vendor and purchaser have agreed in writing, do they mean me and the original old couple? Or do they mean me and the potential buyer of my townhouses. I spoke to two accountants and they are telling me differently! One said use Margin Scheme will be better as lesser GST liable, the other said the opposite. What? I kindly ask for some advise from you guys or some guidance. I might also go speak to a 3rd accountant. Thanks.