So the question is how do different banks treat income from share (ETF) dividends on investor's serviceability? I'd image different banks have different policies regarding this. Please provide examples if you now some. I've got a situation which is becoming more and more common for property investors these days when there is plenty of equity but it's becoming harder and harder to access it because of the serviceability (APRA) restrictions. As I'm getting closer to the wall I'm seeking the ways to get around this (or rather defer it as ultimately we'll all hit it sooner or later). I'm considering/doing property development to manufacture some equity as well as improve the serviceability. However, I prefer doing this using other people's money since for most of us here one of the key ingredients of property investment is having the leverage. If there is no leverage investing in high yielding shares (ETFs) looks more attractive from passive income producing perspective (the other nice benefit is diversification from property). The option I'm considering is investing money sitting in PPOR's offset account in some high yielding ETFs (e.g. VHY or something similar; haven't done extensive research yet). Of course as per @Terry_w suggested strategy I'd first do a split, repay it with the money from offset and reborrow to invest in this case for the interest to be tax deductible. The way I see it is that money sitting in offset is not considered by the banks as a form of income. Whereas in case of share dividends the banks are more likely to consider it when evaluating one's serviceability (I know that some banks accept statement of account while others need 2 years tax returns to do this). Some basic numbers. Let's say I invest $100k in shares yielding 5% pa. Thus, $5k pa dividend income. How much more money can banks lend on that income? Please feel free to share your thoughts.