I know that there are already a few threads on this topic, but hopefully someone can answer my specific scenario. I have an IP that I bought about 1.5 years back. I have a long term plan to redevelop into 3 townhouses. I am not a developer/builder(ie not registered for GST to that effect). If/When I redevelop, my current plan to retain all 3 townhouses. My understanding is that GST does not apply if I sell after 5 years of development. My questions are- 1. Will GST apply on sale if I sell one or more townhouses prior to 5 years(sale due to change in personal circumstances)? 2. When does this 5 year period start(guess is from date of issue of occupancy cert)? GST would change my rough calculation for the planned development and hence the questions. Thanks in advance.
Speak to an account to confirm, but I believe Yes, GST will apply, given it is an IP. It needs to be 'continuously rented for five years', so would start when it is tenanted.
you might want to look at the legislation on 'new residential premises' at s 40-75 GST Act A NEW TAX SYSTEM (GOODS AND SERVICES TAX) ACT 1999 - SECT 40.75 Meaning of new residential premises
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