Hi Everyone, I am a relatively new investor, 1 and a bit years old. You all seem very knowledgable on the topic of loan structure so just a quick scenario to pick your brains. Scenario: Purchased a property using parents guarantor for the loan with after costs loan being >100% LVR. Purchase price $480,000 (I think loan was around 500k) 1 year and four months later property is valued @ $605,000 and could be refinanced to release guarantors. Now my question is, once the bank secures the property against its new value, there is no remaining equity left to use right? And I will have to wait now for further CG before being able to access equity for subsequent deposits. Is this correct? Cheers!