First post on the new forums! I've just sold the house I live in (House 1) which I've owned for 18 months and lived in at all times. I'm also selling my former PPOR (House 2) and, for CGT purposes, will use the 6 year rule to treat House 2 as the CGT exempt asset given gains are much greater. I therefore need to pay CGT on House 1. My reading of the ATO's guidelines are that I can add any council rates, insurance and loan interest paid since I've owned House 1 to its CGT cost base. https://www.ato.gov.au/General/Capi...l-gain-or-loss/What-is-the-cost-base-/?page=2 I wasn't expecting this extra generosity! - keen to get other's views on whether this is the correct interpretation.