Hi I’ve asked this before. I currently own my own home and have 4 investment properties. With the discrepancy between Owner Occupied and investor rates I wonder if the following scenario would be possible. Could I take out an Owner Occupied Loan over my own property and use the funds to pay out some of my investment properties? I would quarantine the amounts and keep a record for the accountant to claim the interest component of the loan for tax purposes. I would have thought it wouldn’t have mattered how the money was borrowed (legally of course) as long as you showed the paper trail. Thoughts people???