One of my family members has offered me the opportunity to buy a unit she currently owns outright for below-market value. I think her offer is extremely generous - too generous in fact. As such, I would like to buy the property, but leave her with a residual share of the title (perhaps a 1/8th share, something like that). This way, I can do a bit of reno on it and if I sell it off down the track, she'll be entitled to some of the proceeds. I'm going to get some further professional advice about this, but does anyone know whether this can be done, and how to go about setting it up? Is it something I should speak to a mortgage lender about, or should I be getting legal/accounting advice as to how to draft up a contract and other necessities?