OK got it, so basically the 6 year rule wont apply if you buy another house to live in, you would need to be renting.
House B has already been sold, it was never rented there is no CGT due, during those 7 years it was the main residence. Does this mean there is...
House B is irrelevant, it was never a rental property, there is no capital gains on it. All I'm trying to do is work out what the CGT will be on...
Away as in living in house B, was always a resident. Depreciation was claimed every year it was rented out. ok as above lets add these assumed...
House B was PPOR there is no CGT
Calucation is for A, although it hasn't been sold, I'm just trying to work out what the CGT is up this point specifically if that 6 year rule...
1. New house A built 2012 and is PPOR 2. June 2015 A rented out and move into new house B, valuation; $550k 3. June 2022 move back into A as PPOR,...
Thanks thats what I suspected. There is no finance on the property. Also I thought there exemptions for CGT and stamp duty for spouse transfer...
No, I just find it interesting that the courts and ATO seem to have conflicting definitions of property ownership.
Well under legal/divorce rules a spouse can often be deemed to "own" 50% of all assets regardless of who's name is actually on the title, so...
If I own a property (100% title) and want to transfer the rental income to my spouse do I did to transfer the title to her name or is there...
Its only a few $k. But to give the full story: House built in 2012 Was ppor from 2012 to 2015 Was rental from 2015-2022 Was ppor from 2022-2023...
Original being its new condition when the house was builr or when it becomes a rental?
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